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I am confused by the changes in smear tests from looking for abnormal cells, to looking for the virus (and only if this is positive, looking for anbornal cells). I've always religeously had my smear tests even though it's not easy having had three repairs first an awful tear when giving birth to my first child. I'm 42, married (together for 23 years) with 3 kids. I've never had an abnormal smear, although my mum has (she had them lasered off and never had a problems since).
So my questions are:
1) Now I have tested negative for HPV in my last smear, and I'm in a monogamous relationship, do I need to keep having a smear?
2)Also, is it possible to request that my smear tests for abnormal cervical cells even if I'm HPV negative? My understanding (which may be wrong?) is that, although HPV is responsible for most cervical cancers, it is not the only cause of it. Hence my desire to know if there are any cellular changes, even in the absence of HPV.
Any info or advice most welcome!